Thursday, January 31, 2019

Can an American Member-State Exit the Union?

A war was fought over it. In early 2013, the White House made it explicit in replying to a petition. Yet still there was a sense among at least some Texans that something was amiss. Following U.S. President Obama’s re-election in 2012, citizens of Texas, Louisiana, Alabama, and five other member-states in the U.S. signed petitions for the White House to allow their respective states to secede from the Union. At the time, few people other than the secessionists themselves took the petitions seriously. Yet the underlying contending principles deserve more serious reflection even if no "exit" is anticipated. Most importantly, the matter concerns how and whether the rights of member-states (and majorities of the people, therein) are to be circumscribed in a federal union that leaves said republics semi-sovereign and with residual sovereignty.
In his reply to the petitions, Jon Carson, director of the White House Office of Public Engagement at the time, argued that the American Founders did not provide a right for states to “walk away” from the Union because it is perpetual. He cited Texas v. White, a U.S. Supreme Court case in 1869 that ruled that individual states do not have a right to secede. The republics constituting the polities within the Union have residual sovereignty yet not the most basic authority, or right, to secede. As a republic is a polity whose political system is that of representative democracy, the right denied would be that of the majority of the people. Hence, Texas v. White can be interpreted as infringing on democratic principles. 
For his part, the communications director for the Texas Nationalist Movement, Jeff Sadighi, pointed to the section of the Texas constitution that asserts Texans have the right “to alter, reform or abolish their government in such a manner as they may think expedient.”[1] To alter or reform the government of Texas refers to the governmental system there presumably by constitutional amendment. Although it is possible that an amendment could allow for a "Texit" from the U.S., typically amendments pertain to a government itself as a political system rather than to relationships with other political entities, even if governmental sovereignty is split. To abolish a standing government is to do just that. Since to avoid a brutish state-of-nature some governance is required, presumably the constitution also gives a right to create a new government. The question here is whether such a government would be bound to the U.S. even if secessionability were part of a new government of Texas.
For an answer, we must locate the term "perpetual union" at the federal level, for the Texas v. White decision relies on the federal insistence that the Union is perpetual--meaning that it cannot be abolished and that member-states cannot secede, or "exit" as per twenty-first century parlance. In 1777, The Articles of Confederation and Perpetual Union were proposed to the 13 sovereign member-states. Ratification concluded in 1781. The treat did not establish a federal government; there was only the Continental Congress wherein delegates from the republics met. Article XIII states that "the Union shall be perpetual." In Texas v. White, the U.S. Supreme Court took this to mean that a member-state could not leave the union. I submit that this inference is fallacious. For the Union itself to be perpetual does not require that no member-state leave the Union; it would not be abolished were a state to "exit." Even had the member-states in the Confederate States of America had succeeded in exiting in the 1860s, the U.S.A. could have continued to exist, minus those states. In short, perpetual does not imply that something remains as it is; rather, perpetual means that the thing itself cannot be abolished.
The most blatant error in Texas v. White is that the Court assumed that The Articles of Confederation were still valid. In 1789, that treaty was replaced by the U.S. Constitution, and no reference to perpetual is in that ongoing document
In contrast, the argument against the Texas v. White decision rests on constitutional language. In particular, the 10th Amendment explicitly refers to the residual (i.e., unspecified, and thus unlimited) powers being held by the states and the people, rather than to the federal government, which includes the U.S. Supreme Court, the Congress, and the U.S .President. The "people" refers both to roles as citizens of the respective states and U.S. citizens. The former implies that the majority of a state's electorate have just as much residual sovereignty as does a majority of the U.S. electorate; the notion of popular sovereignty as the ground of a representative democracy gives a majority foundational authority. So it makes sense that residual sovereignty ultimately belongs to majorities of electorates. In federalism, each citizen is one of two polities--her member-state and her federal government. That the amendment assigns residual sovereignty to the states along with the people implies that the latter have residual sovereignty especially in so far as a person is a citizen of a state. Moreover, the residual sovereignty of a member-state and the people more than outweigh the limited, or enumerated, authority of the U.S. Government, and especially the historical treaty that since 1789 has not been in effect.
The U.S. Supreme Court, a branch of the federal government, reached its Texas v. White decision in spite of the fact that it is so obviously without an ongoing constitutional basis; the Court went instead merely on the stretched assumption that what had been stated in the Articles is somehow to be implied in the U.S. Constitution, which replaced the Articles. The explanation may lie in the Court being caught in an institutional conflict of interest. In short, the head of a branch (or arm, as per The New York Times' terminology on the E.U., which in turn seeks to distinguish itself from the U.S. in part by having arms rather than branches) has an institutional interest in protecting the government or level of government that has the branch or arm over being a level (i.e., unbiased, and thus fair) adjudicator of constitutional conflicts between a member-state (or even the member-states) and the government in which the Court is a part. Americans, and even the world, miss this conflict of interest whose support is in the U.S. Constitution.
It may be that the E.U.'s constitutional language allowing states to secede reflects a more balanced federal system with respect to the states and the Union. In fact, the E.U.'s Supreme Court, the ECJ, has cleverly evaded the conflict of interest that plagues its counterpart in the U.S. by having a given state nominate a state jurist to be confirmed by all of the states. With such a state-based process, the inherent bias of the European Court of Justice toward the E.U. level is institutionally (here, in terms of process) countered such that the state and federal levels have weight. That the U.S. has not learned this point from looking at the ECJ is troubling, as this implies that the U.S. Constitution may not be flexible enough even to be improved.

For more on such conflicts of interest, see Institutional Conflicts of Interest, available at Amazon. For more comparisons of the E.U. and U.S., see Essays on Two Federal Empires, also available at Amazon.


1. Manny Fernandez, “White House Rejects Petitions to Secede, but Texans Fight On,” The New York Times, January 16, 2013.